Thursday, November 6, 2008

~Sunday Proof Answers~

Question #1

Lets look at this Sunday proof in sections…


Verses to keep the Sabbath-

Luke 4:16; in understanding 1st Pet. 2:21, 22; Col. 2:6; and 1st John 2:3-7 we need to follow Christ's example; He kept the Sabbath so we need to also.


Heb. 4:3-4, 7-11- there remains a Sabbath rest for the people of God.


There is not one verse in the OT or NT that states old Jewish covenant or Jewish Covenant that I could find.


The New Law, the Law of Christ, the New Covenant that superceded the Old Covenant is the Ten Commandments. The Old Covenant is the Ceremonial Law… Acts 3:25; Gal. 3:10,13,15,17, 24-25; Heb. 8:6-13; 9:1-4

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Question #2



Has the original Sabbath been lost, as previous centuries have gone by?


1. The Sabbath was instituted at creation. (Genesis 2:1-2)

2. If the true Sabbath day was lost after creation, then it was reinstituted when manna fell from heaven. On the seventh-day, manna did not fall from heaven. (Exodus 16:4, 22-31)

3. If after this the true Sabbath day was lost, then God brought it back into existence at Mount Sinai, when Moses brought down the Ten Commandments. The fourth commandment was written in stone to symbolize that it would endure till the very end of all time. (Exodus 20:8-11)

4. Then in 48 B.C., the Julian calendar was instituted. We have absolute continuity from then until now.

However, aside from historical facts, just taking into consideration Biblical accounts:

5. The Sabbath day had to have been intact during Christ's upbringing because it was Jesus' custom to worship on the Sabbath and He preached a sermon on the Sabbath day. (Luke 4:16-30)

6. Jesus was crucified on Friday and rested even in death on the Sabbath day. (Luke 23:34-56)

7. The women and the disciples kept the Sabbath day after the crucifixion. (Luke 23:54-56; Acts 13:14-16, 42, 44; 15:21; 16:31; 17:2; 18:4…)

8. Then in 1582 A.D., there was a change in the calendar and we move to the Gregorian calendar. Gregorian refers to whom? It refers to Pope Gregory. He saw fit to change the times. Why? Because he wanted to show his power to the world. And lo, within a couple of years after the change occurred the entire world changed their calendar to fit the popes.


Nevertheless, he didn't change the Sabbath day at all. He went from the 4th to the 15th of October, instead of the 5th of October. He skipped a few days of the year in October but, didn't alter the weekly cycle from its previous cycle in any way, shape, or form. The Sabbath day is still in tact and it has not been lost.

But back to Biblical accounts:

9. If the Sabbath day still gets lost even after all that has been recorded on the matter, Christ will then reinstitute it when we (Christians) go to heaven and spend eternity with Him. (Isaiah 66:22, 23)

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"Stating that in connection with the proposed simplifications of the calendar, we have had occasion to investigate the results of the work of specialists in chronology and we have never found one of them that has ever had the slightest doubt about the continuity of the weekly cycle since long before the Christian era. There has been no change in our calendar in past centuries that has affected in any way the cycle of the week."


U.S. Naval Observation, Washington D.C., February 25, 1932

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Question #3

Let's take this statement in parts…


Although WE RESPECT this belief, of Christ arising therefore a new worship day arising, it is incorrect because… there are no verses stating the day of worship is moved/changed to another day before or after Sabbath.


To determine if this is truly proof for Sunday sacredness lets, by Biblical standard, establish what a Biblical day is. Turning to Gen. 1:5,8,13,19,23, and 31 a day in the Bible is "the evening and the morning were the _________ [whichever] day." Concluding, today in our modern world the day they were actually meeting on is Saturday evening through the night and into early Sunday morning. This text therefore shows that Sunday sacredness is not in this instance Biblical.

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Question #4

In these texts, it may appear that Christ is destroying the Sabbath but in realty…


The observance of the Sabbath by the Jewish people in the time of Christ had come to be entirely unlike that which God designed it to be. So far from being a blessing, it had come to be a curse and a burden. Satan had done his best at perverting the meaning and the purpose of the Sabbath until it was bogged down with burdensome restrictions by the Jewish leaders. When Jesus taught among the Jews, He made all opportunity to correct the false conceptions of the Sabbath. He took upon all occasion to free the day from its burdensome, man-made regulations. This is seen in all the texts stated as Christ is healing and accomplishing His Fathers "work" on the Sabbath."


When the Jewish people ever criticize Christ for breaking anything we can never rely on them as truth. Our source for right and wrong should only come from the One who gave the Source and not from those who ridicule the One who wrote the Source.

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Question #5

Lets a closer examination of this verse and see what the text says…


John 20:19- "The same day at evening being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, 'Peace be unto you'."

So this verse reveals that the disciples where behind shut doors because they didn't want to be ridiculed, or tortured, or killed by the Jews. Jesus comes in, not for a worship service, but to calm their fretfulness by saying, 'peace unto them all'. Drawing the obvious conclusion on this text, the disciples were not assembled for any kind of Sunday service worshipping God, but to hide form their persecutors.

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Question #6

Let's spell out the whole verse for a clearer judgment on what this actually means.


"Col. 2:16-17 says, "Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or I respect of a holyday, or of the new moon, or of the Sabbath days:

Which are a shadow of things to come…"


"The common argument dealing with this portion of scripture is that the verse mentioned is referring to the fourth commandment in the Decalogue, therefore, we need not worship, keep holy, etc., on this specific day of the week, this day being the Sabbath. Lets determine whether or not this be so.


Beginning in verse 14 of the same chapter it reads, "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing to the cross."


Now, are the Ten C's against or contrary to us in any way? Psalm 119:24,86,92,128, 129,137,142,165 it's a delight, they're faithful, they're right, they're wonderful, they're upright, it's truth, it brings peacefulness; in Isaiah 5:16 it's holy; in Isaiah 56:2, 6-7 it's a blessing; in Isaiah 58:13 it's honorable; in Luke 18:19 it's good; in 1st John 4:8 it's love; and in 1st John 5:3 it's not grievous to us; all these references speak of the Ten C's as a blessing to our lives… if we choose to follow them


So what law is against us if the Ten C's aren't? Deut. 29:20,21,27; 31:26; Josh. 8:34; 2nd Chr. 34:24 and Dan. 9:11 all point directly at the ceremonial law as the solution. These verses state the ceremonial law being against us, or a curse to us, or contrary to us.


Looking at Col. 2:16-17 a little closer, does the fourth commandment have anything to do with meats, or drinking, or of new moons, etc…? No it doesn't. Leviticus 23:2-3,15,24,32,39 [speaking of the ceremonial law] shows us that "Sabbath days" are referred to as feast days and or holy days in the Bible. In our American culture it would be considered a holiday. They are called Sabbath days because they are to be kept like a Sabbath day… sacred."


"Oxford American Dictionaries; holiday- Origin (Old English)- ha`ligdaeq- holy day." "As stated, this is where our modern day term holiday came from."

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Question #7

Let's begin in vs. 1 and then go to vs. 2.


"Now concerning the collection for the saints, as I have given order to the churches of Galatia, even so do ye.

Upon the first day of the week let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come."


The context of vs. 1 and as other Scriptures reveal; Paul was raising a 'collection' for needy believers in 'Jerusalem' (vs. 3) during a time of famine. [Acts 11:17-30 and Rom. 15:25,26 both verify of this]. On 'the first day of the week' (Sunday), 'let every one' (individually), 'lay by him' (Lit. Greek 'at home'), 'in store' (in storage), a certain amount that he is able to pay on account of the blessings of God. The Greek 'by him in store' reveals that this was to be done in their homes. Paul had raised up a great Sabbath-keeping church in Corinth (Acts 18:1,4,11), and now he is writing a letter to the church in Corinth (1 Corinthians). Paul anticipated that his letter would be read to the general church body when they gathered for their regular worship service on the Sabbath, as he had taught them to do "every Sabbath" (Acts 18:4). He wants them to 'lay aside' something on the very next day (Sunday) before they forget, so 'that there be no gatherings when I come.' Paul is actually instructing them to work (look over their secular affairs and set aside a gift) on 'the first day of the week'! Paul wanted the money and gifts to be ready for him to pick up when he came through Corinth. This was an emergency situation and not their regular practice, for Paul had to give them 'orders' to do what they were not normally doing (vs. 1).


Another evidence for nullifying Sunday sacredness…


The order for the collection was only given for the churches in Galatia and Corinth. If this was to be a regular practice [tithing on Sunday] that Paul wanted to institute, wouldn't he have spread the 'collection' to other areas and churches? i.e. Thessalonica, Colossae, Philippi, Ephesus, & Rome.


In concluding on this text, we have therefore shown that this verse is not a proof for Sunday Sacredness.

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Question #8


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Compiled by Andrew Ketts

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